Question base.

Browse exam questions.

Choose a session (36)

LEKEXAM / 2014 autumn

Question distribution — 2014 autumn session

Share of each category in the latest available session.

Internal medicinePediatricsSurgeryGynecology and obstetricsFamily medicineEmergency medicine, AnaesthesiologyPsychiatryMedical law and bioethicsPublic healthMedical certification

0%5%10%15%20%

Question 1

Which of the following may be the cause of anemia of chronic diseases?

Abacterial infection
Bmalignant tumors
Csystemic lupus erythematosus
DA+C
EA+B+C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 2

What is not characteristic of myeloma?

Aincrease in ESR
Banemia
Cleukocytosis
Dhypercalcemia
Ehypergammaglobulinemia

Reveal the correct answer

Question 3

Mark the false statement about Hodgkin's lymphoma:

Athe cervical and mediastinal lymph nodes are most commonly enlarged
Bconfluent night sweats belong to symptoms B
Cis most commonly manifested by a significantly elevated level of lymphocytes in the blood
Dfinal diagnosis is based on histopathological examination and immunological biopsy of the lymph node or other occupied tissue
Estandard treatment consists of conventional chemotherapy and often radiotherapy

Reveal the correct answer

Question 4

The Philadelphia chromosome is characteristic of:

Amultiple myeloma
BHodgkin's lymphoma
Cchronic myelogenous leukemia
Dacute myeloid leukemia
Eacute lymphoblastic leukemia

Reveal the correct answer

Question 5

What type of self-control should be used by a patient with type 2 diabetes treated only with diet?

AGlucose measurement 1 time per day on an empty stomach
BGlucose measurement once a week on an empty stomach
CShort glycemic profile once a week
DShort glycemic profile once a month
EGlycemic measurements several times a day

Reveal the correct answer

Question 6

The correct ankle-brachial index (ABI) is:

A<0,9
B0,9–1,0
C1,0–1,4
D1.40-1.60
E>1.60

Reveal the correct answer

Question 7

The diffuse form of systemic sclerosis proceeds with the involvement of:
1. lungs
2. digestive tract
3. heart
4. kidneys

Aall listed
B1,2,4
C1,3,4
D1,4
Eonly 1

Reveal the correct answer

Question 8

Diseases that increase the risk of osteoporosis or cause secondary osteoporosis include:
1. Celiac disease
2. Ulcerative colitis
3. Chronic liver disease with or without cholestasis
4. Parathyroid hyperactivity

Aall listed
B2,3,4
C2,4
D3,4
E4

Reveal the correct answer

Question 9

For which disease microcytic anemia is characteristic?
1. iron deficiency anemia
2. B12 deficiency anemia
3. hemolytic anemia
4. anemia of chronic diseases

Aonly 1
B1 and 2
C1 and 3
D1,3 and 4
Eall

Reveal the correct answer

Question 10

A 42-year-old man with chronic kidney disease in the G3b stage went to hospital with lower limb edema and asymptomatic hyponatremia (130mEq/l). Which treatment is the most suitable:

Aadministration of 0.9% NaCl iv
Badministration of 3% NaCl iv
Chemodialysis
Drestriction of fluid intake
Eanswers A and B are correct

Reveal the correct answer

Question 11

Indicate the statement that falsely describes the Sjogren syndrome:

Ais more common in women
Bmay be a primary or secondary syndrome (e.g. in RA)
Csalivary and lacrimal glands are occupied in its course
Dmainly NSAIDs are used in the treatment
Ethere is an increased risk of development of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

Reveal the correct answer

Question 12

Which of the following diseases predispose to autoimmune pancreatitis
1. primary biliary cirrhosis
2. Sjogren syndrome
3. peptic ulcer disease
4. inflammatory bowel diseases
5. gastroesophageal reflux disease

A1,2
B1,2,3,4,
C1,2,4,5
D1,2,4
E2

Reveal the correct answer

Question 13

A 30-year-old patient came to hospital because of visible macrohematuria. He has recently had an inflammation of the upper respiratory tract. The most likely diagnosis will be:

Amicroscopic glomerulonephritis
Bfocal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Cmicroscopic vasculitis
DIgA nephrophathy
Enone of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 14

Arthritis may occur in the course of:

Agonorrhea
BCrohn's disease
Cpsoriasis
DA and C
EA, B and C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 15

A 24-year-old pregnant woman has asymptomatic bacteriuria. Select the true statements:

AA woman has a higher risk of pyelonephritis
BA suitable antibiotic will be fluoroquinolone
CA woman has a higher risk of bladder inflammation
DA and C are correct
EA, B and C are correct

Reveal the correct answer

Question 16

In the case of finding a peripherally located tumor in the lung, the smallest diagnostic value is obtained by examining the material obtained:

Ausing a fine needle biopsy through the chest wall
Busing a core needle biopsy through the chest wall
Cusing brochoscopy
Dfrom sputum
Eby videotoracoscopy

Reveal the correct answer

Question 17

Indicate the correct statement about small cell lung cancer:

Ais not related to smoking
Bis usually located in the parahilar region
Cmakes up approx. 50% of all lung cancers
Dit should always be treated surgically
Eis resistant to chemotherapy

Reveal the correct answer

Question 18

A 36-year-old bodybuilder, overusing painkillers, was admitted to hospital due to bleeding, anemia and high blood pressure. In laboratory tests, attention was paid to: serum creatinine 15 mg / dl, urea 260 mg / dl and potassium 5.2 mmol / l. The right procedure is:

Adiagnostics of chronic kidney disease
Badministration of intravenous bolus of corticosteroids
Cconservative treatment: transfusion, diuretics, antihypertensive drugs
Dhemodialysis
Epreparation for kidney transplantation

Reveal the correct answer

Question 19

A 72-year-old woman suffers from back pain for several months and for this reason she takes diclofenac. Additional test results: Hgb 8.7g / dl, creatinine 2.3 mg / dl, ESR 120, proteinuria 3 g / day, calcium 2.9 mmol / l. The most probable diagnosis is:

Achronic pyelonephritis
Banalgesic nephropathy
Cprimary glomerulonephritis
Dkidney involvement in the course of lupus
Emultiple myeloma

Reveal the correct answer

Question 20

Indicate the true information about kidney transplantation:

1. Transplantation may be performed after dialysis lasting for at least 6 months.

2. The condition for performing a kidney transplant is the compliance of major blood groups.

3. The current cancer process is an absolute contraindication.

4. Immunosuppressive drugs should only be used during the adaptive period.

5. Late complications of the transplantation include: chronic rejection and cancer.

A1,3,4
B1,2,5
C1,4,5
D3,4,5
E2,3,5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 21

Indicate the correct statement. During pregnancy:

Aasthma almost always exacerbates
BInhaled steroids are recommended for the treatment of chronic asthma in pregnancy regardless of the severity of asthma
CInhaled steroids are strictly contraindicated in the treatment of asthma in pregnancy
DSystemic steroids are strictly contraindicated in the treatment of asthma in pregnancy, even in exacerbations
ETheophylline is the first-line treatment for the treatment of asthma in pregnancy

Reveal the correct answer

Question 22

In the right ventricular infarction, echocardiography does not indicate:

Aenlarged and hypokinetic right ventricle
Bcollapsed and hypokinetic right ventricle
Cenlarged and akinetic right ventricle
Denlarged right atrium
Etricuspid regurgitation

Reveal the correct answer

Question 23

In atypical pneumonia the following drugs can be used:

1) cephalosporins

2) fluoroquinolones

3) macrolides

4) beta-lactams

5) tetracycline

A2,5
B2,3,4
C1,4,5
D2,3,5
E1,2,3,5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 24

Having been suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for over a dozen years, a man reported to hospital admission room with symptoms of dyspnoea. The following results appeared in the gasometer: pH 7.39; PaO2 55.4 mmHg; PaCO2 49.5 mmHg; HCO 3 (-) 30.3 mmol / L; BE -4 mEq / l; SaO2 88%. Provide the correct interpretation of the above results.

Auncompensated respiratory acidosis, hypoxia and hypercapnia
Bcompensated respiratory alkalosis, hypoxia and normal CO2 concentration
Ccompensated acidosis, hypoxia and hypercapnia
Duncompensated respiratory alkalosis, hypoxia and hypercapnia
Eproper acid-base homeostasis, hypoxia and hypercapnia

Reveal the correct answer

Question 25

A 40-year-old woman has reported epigastric pain lasting for a week and has melenas for 2 days. The patient was regularly taking diclofenac due to exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient is in good general condition. Normal blood pressure. Pulse rate 70/min, after verticalization 108/min. Blood count: erythrocytes 3600 thousand/mm3, Hb 11.2 g/dl, Ht 30%. The correct procedure is

AYou will perform transfusion of 1-2 units of packed red blood cells
BYou control blood test results and if the condition worsens, you perform blood transfusion
CYou will order endoscopy of the upper gastrointestinal tract
DYou will order a colonoscopy
EYou recommend the use of proton pump inhibitors

Reveal the correct answer

Question 26

For RA, the most specific antibodies are:

Aanti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
Banti-citrullinated protein antibodies
CdsDNA
Dphospholipid
Enone

Reveal the correct answer

Question 27

A 78-year-old patient so far in good general condition, suffering from constipation and abdominal distension for over 10 years, excreted two abundant stools with an addition of fresh blood within half an hour. The patient feels weak. This episode occurred for the first time in his life, it did not happen again. According to the most common causes of bleeding from the lower gastrointestinal tract in his age group, the correct diagnosis will be:

AMeckel's diverticulum
Brectal cancer
Cirritable bowel syndrome
Dbleeding from colon diverticulosis
Eulcerative colitis

Reveal the correct answer

Question 28

What is the most probable diagnosis in a 50-year-old woman with slowly developing and progressive cysts filled with fluid, as in her mother; she also presents enlarged kidneys:

Aautosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Bautosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
Csimple kidney cysts
Dkidney abscesses
Exanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

Reveal the correct answer

Question 29

In the light flare-up of ulcerative colitis, the first-line treatment is:

Aprednisone
Bazatioprin
Csulfasalazine or mesalazine
Dmetylprednisolon
Emetronidazole

Reveal the correct answer

Question 30

A 55-year-old obese woman experienced for the second time an epigastric pain, lasting several minutes, which resolved after the use of relaxants. The next day, yellowing of sclera and dark urine were found. In multiple abdominal ultrasound examinations, no gallstones in the bile ducts or bile duct widening have been observed. The patient had cholecystectomy 10 years ago. Laboratory tests showed elevated transaminases. The most probable diagnosis is:

Achronic hepatitis
Bcholedocholithiasis
Cacute pancreatitis
Dsubileus
Estomach ulcer

Reveal the correct answer

Question 31

Patient complaining of easy fatigue and exercise dyspnoea in physical examination was found to have a loud S1 heart sound, snap of mitral valve opening, as well as a diastolic murmur in the second intercostal space on the left side. What should be suspected?

Amitral regurgitation
Baortic valve regurgitation
Cpulmonary valve stenosis
Dmitral stenosis
Enone of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 32

An alcohol addict complained of the loss of taste, tongue burning, paresthesia in the hands and feet, positive Lhermitte sign, impaired vibration sensation and loss of proprioception, slight yellowing of the skin. The blood count will show the following results:

Amicrocytosis, reticulocytosis, leukocytosis with eosinophilia
Bmacrocytosis, reticulocytopenia, leukopenia with neutropenia, thrombocytopenia
Cmacrocytosis, reticulocytosis, leukopenia with neutropenia
Dmacrocytosis, reticulocytopenia, leukocytosis
Emicrocytosis, reticulocytopenia, leukopenia with neutropenia and thrombocytopenia

Reveal the correct answer

Question 33

Laboratory examinations were performed in a man: decreased TSH concentration, elevated fT4 concentration, decreased total and LDL cholesterol levels, microcytic anemia in blood count. What symptoms can be expected in this patient?

AIrritability, psychomotor agitation, palpitations, increased sweating and warming of the skin.
BDrowsiness, palpitations, increased sweating and warming of the skin.
CIrritability, psychomotor agitation, bradycardia, increased sweating and warming of the skin.
DDrowsiness, excessive keratosis, subcutaneous edema, chronic constipation.
ENone of the above.

Reveal the correct answer

Question 34

Atypical pneumonia is caused by:

ALegionella sp.
BPseudomonas aeruginosa
CStaphylococcus aureus
DAspergillus fumigatus
EAll of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 35

A 56-year-old patient, abusing alcohol, with diagnosed chronic pancreatitis arrived to hospital with symptoms of epigastric and midabdominal pain. Which complications of chronic pancreatitis should be suspected?
1) pseudocyst
2) pancreatic cancer
3) ascites
4) obstruction of the common bile duct
5) splenic vein thrombosis

A1 ,2, 3
B2, 3, 4
C1, 2, 5
D1, 2, 3, 4
Eall of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 36

The symptoms of presence of pericardial fluid are:

Alow pulse pressure
Bjugular venous distension
Cquiet heart sounds
Dparadoxic pulse
Eall correct answers

Reveal the correct answer

Question 37

The first-line drugs in the treatment of hypertension include:

Aangiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
Bcalcium channel blockers
Cbeta-blockers
DA + C
EA, B, C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 38

The patient complaining of retrosternal pain vomited several times and lost consciousness - does not react to touch and pain, moreover, he does not breathe. Which action should be taken first?

Aconnect a 12-lead ECG to diagnose STEMI
Ba 3-lead limb ECG that can be used to diagnose STEMI
Capplication of paddles to defibrillate if VT / VF
Dsuction of vomit from the respiratory tract and conduction of the ABC examination
Eadministration of 1mg of adrenaline

Reveal the correct answer

Question 39

Lymph node biopsy is indicated in a child with lymphadenopathy and the following clinical features:

Asystemic symptoms (fever 1 week, night sweats, weight loss of 10% of body weight)
Benlargement of supraclavicular and lower cervical lymph nodes
Cenlargement of the lymph node above 1 cm in the initial neonatal period
DA and B
EA, B and C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 40

Which of the following is not characteristic of growing pains in children:

Adoes not occur every day
Bpain does not occur in the morning
Cconcern children aged 4-6
Dconcern large joints
Ethe gait is correct

Reveal the correct answer

Question 41

The prognostic factors in ALL in children are all of the following, except for:

AResponse to treatment
BAge of the patient
CNumber of white blood cells in peripheral blood
DMCH
EGenetic aberrations

Reveal the correct answer

Question 42

The factors predisposing to the occurrence of UTI are:

Aurinary system defects
Bconstipation and fecal incontinence
Crare urination
Dtaking small amounts of fluids
Eall of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 43

Where is it best to measure the temperature in children under 36 months of age?

Ain the anus
Bunder the arm
Cin the outer ear
Don the skin of the forehead
Ein the mouth

Reveal the correct answer

Question 44

Live attenuated vaccines include:

AInfluenza vaccine (intramuscular or subcutaneous)
BVaccine against chickenpox
CVaccine against HBV
DVaccine against typhoid fever
ENone of the vaccines is live attenuated

Reveal the correct answer

Question 45

The cause of frequent anemia in children are all except:

Airon deficiency anemia
Bhemolysis
Chemoglobinopathies
Dchronic lymphocytic leukemia
Ebone marrow suppression

Reveal the correct answer

Question 46

Choose the correct statement regarding mumps:

Ait is an acute infectious disease caused by RNA virus
Bis contagious 7 days before the onset of swelling of the salivary glands and up to 9 days after its occurrence
Cmumps virus has affinity for CNS
DA, B, C - true
EA, B, C - false

Reveal the correct answer

Question 47

The most common cause of chest pain in children is:

Amyocardial ischemia
Bmyocarditis
Cpulmonary embolism
Dstomach ulcers
Epains coming from the musculoskeletal system

Reveal the correct answer

Question 48

In a child allergic to hymenoptera venom, we will give adrenaline when:

Adespite the administration of oral medications, a rapid deterioration of symptoms occurs
Bthe sting will occur around the tongue or neck.
Csymptoms of cardiovascular system, gastrointestinal tract or respiratory system occur
Dcorrect A, B, C
Ecorrect A, C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 49

Chorea is a symptom of damage of:

Acerebellum
Bcerebral cortex
Cpyramidal tract
Dextrapyramidal system
Eall of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 50

The causes of atypical pneumonia in school-aged children are:

AMycoplasma pneumoniae, RSV, Streptococcus pneumoniae
BChlamydia pneumoniae, RSV, Streptococcus pneumoniae
CMycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Legionella pneumoniae
DStreptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella
EPneumocystis jiroveci

Reveal the correct answer

Question 51

Prophylaxis of UTI should be used in the following cases:

1) after an UTI episode in newborns and infants

2) recurrent UTI

3) in children with diseases that disturb bladder emptying

4) after urosepsis

5) after the first UTI before voiding cystourethography (if there are indications for this study)

A2,3,5
B1,2,3,5
C1,4
D2,3,4
Eall correct

Reveal the correct answer

Question 52

Wheezing in children occurs in:
1. defects of the respiratory system, immunodeficiency, tumors in the chest
2. bronchial asthma, obstructive bronchitis, aspiration of a foreign body
3. cystic fibrosis, chronic inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, heart defects
4. bronchopulmonary dysplasia, recurrent aspirations, laxity of the larynx, trachea and bronchi

A1,2
Bonly 2
C2,3,4
D1,3
Eall

Reveal the correct answer

Question 53

Screening test for congenital hypothyroidism:

Ais based on the examination of TSH in a newborn after 3 days of life
Bis used to diagnose only secondary hypothyroidism
Cinvolves the examination of thyroglobulin in the newborn after 2 days of life
Dconsists in visualization of thyroid in the ultrasound
Einvolves the examination of fT3 in a newborn after 3 days of life

Reveal the correct answer

Question 54

A feature of Blackfan-Diamond anemia is not:

Amicrocytic anemia from the neonatal period
Bretikulocytopenia
Cusually no leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
Dcoexistence of developmental disorders
Ecoexistence of tumors

Reveal the correct answer

Question 55

A girl was diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis with a pauciarticular onset, positive anti-nuclear antibodies in studies. Which organ should be observed in terms of a potential damage?

Alungs
Bheart
Cliver
Deye
Enone of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 56

A boy who had contact with a child suffering from chickenpox four days ago reported to hospital with his parents to perform a small surgical procedure. The correct procedure is:

Ado not admit the boy to hospital
Bprovide the boy an immunoglobulin and operate
Cadmit the boy to hospital, perform the procedure and discharge the child within 8 days of contact
Dadmit the boy to hospital, perform the procedure and discharge the child within 14 days of contact
Evaccinate the boy against chickenpox and operate

Reveal the correct answer

Question 57

Indicate a false statement regarding the measurement of blood pressure in children:

Aon the first visit you need to measure the pressure on four limbs
Bon subsequent visits, the measurement should be made on the right shoulder at the level of the heart
Cwhen using too narrow cuffs the results can be overestimated by 30%
Din the 1st year of life the pressure measured on the upper limb is higher than on the lower limb
Ethe cuff is to occupy the entire circumference of the arm and at least 1/3 of the arm's length

Reveal the correct answer

Question 58

Indicate the incorrect statement regarding laboratory tests in anemia:

Athe first test to be performed is blood count including MCV, MCHC, reticulocytes with peripheral blood smear
Bdetermination of total and direct bilirubin and LDH is helpful in the diagnosis of haemolytic anemia
Cschistocytes indicate the microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
DG-6-PD deficiency causes microangiopathic anemia
Ea positive DAT result (direct antiglobulin test) indicates hemolytic anemia

Reveal the correct answer

Question 59

What ionic disorders occur in adrenal insufficiency?

Ahypernatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis
Bhyponatremia, hypokaliemia, hypochloromia, metabolic acidosis
Chyponatremia, hyperkaliamia, hypochloria, metabolic acidosis
Dhypernatremia, hyperkalcemia, hyperchloremia, metabolic acidosis
Ehyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis

Reveal the correct answer

Question 60

Indicate the true statement about physiological jaundice:

Aoccurs in newborns just after birth
Bis caused by direct hyperbilirubinemia
Cproceeds with an increase in bilirubin not exceeding 15 mg / dl in artificially fed newborns
Dis the most severe in the second day of life
Eit lasts about 4 weeks

Reveal the correct answer

Question 61

Indicate the correct statement about megaloblastic anemia:

Ausually begins secretly, impairing the psychomotor development
Bis caused by a mixed deficiency of B group vitamins
Ca reduced secretion of FIGLU in the urine is required for the diagnosis
Dis often diagnosed in children with celiac disease
Eall true

Reveal the correct answer

Question 62

Indicate the false statement concerning Schönlein-Henoch purpura:

Aproteinuria and hematuria are necessary for the diagnosis.
Bincidence in boys is higher than in girls.
Cmedication antigens may induce the disease.
Dbenign forms, without nephropathy symptoms, are self-limiting.
Edisease is related to the presence of viral or bacterial antigens.

Reveal the correct answer

Question 63

Indicate the correct statement regarding pervasive developmental disorders:

ADiagnosis is made in kindergarten age
BIt includes Asperger's syndrome, autism and Down Syndrome
CThere is a disorder of physical and psycho-motor development
DIs characterized by difficulties in communication and social contacts
EAll statements are correct

Reveal the correct answer

Question 64

Interstitial lesions in the radiological picture occur in pneumonia with etiology:

AStreptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae;
BStaphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae;
CVZV, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydiophila pneumoniae;
DCMV, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydiophila pneumoniae;
ECorrect answers C and D.

Reveal the correct answer

Question 65

How long should iron supplements be administered in therapeutic doses in children up to 2 years of age with iron deficiency anemia?

AUntil normalization of Hb level
BFor 3 months
CUntil the normalization of reticulocytes
DUntil normalization of the serum iron concentration in the patient
EUntil replenishment of iron stores, what is indicated by ferritin

Reveal the correct answer

Question 66

Which of the following rheumatic diseases in children is associated with thrombocytopenia?

Arheumatic fever
BKawasaki disease
Csystemic lupus erythematosus
Dsystemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis
EHenoch Schonlein purpura

Reveal the correct answer

Question 67

The Sheehan's syndrome is characterized by:

Alack of postnatal lactation
Binvolution of the mammary glands
Closs of pubic and axillary hair
Dsymptoms of thyroid and adrenal insufficiency
Eall

Reveal the correct answer

Question 68

The most common gonadal tumor of the ovary is:

Athecoma
Bfibroma
Cfolliculoma
Ddysgerminoma
Eteratoma

Reveal the correct answer

Question 69

In the course of normal pregnancy, glomerular filtration of the kidneys may increase by a maximum of:

A10%
B20%
C30%
D40%
E50%

Reveal the correct answer

Question 70

The following are involved in the amniotic fluid circulation mechanism - its production and resorption:

Aamnion
Bfetal skin
Cfetal kidneys
Dfetal digestive tract
Eall

Reveal the correct answer

Question 71

The rapid increase in the local concentration of prostaglandins and proteolytic enzymes in the ovarian follicle wall during ovulation is caused by:

Aa sharp drop in prolactin concentration
Brapid increase in FSH
Crapid increase in LH
Drapid increase in TSH
Ean increase in the concentration of choriogonadotropin secreted by the corpus luteum

Reveal the correct answer

Question 72

A 22-year-old woman has been menstruating regularly for several years. The cycle lasts no longer than 20 days. The proper term is:

Amenorrhagiae
Bhypomenorrhea
Coligomenorrhoea
Dmetrorrhagiae
Epolymenorrhoea

Reveal the correct answer

Question 73

What are the undesirable side effects of using GnRH agonists?

Adryness in the vagina, hot flushes, excessive sweating
Babnormal uterine bleeding, reduction of bone mass
Cemotional lability, decrease in libido
Dnausea, painful joints, headaches
Eall of them

Reveal the correct answer

Question 74

A 30 years old patient with uterine bleeding, abdominal pain, breast tenderness, appetite disorders. The last menstruation was 7 weeks ago. What do you suspect:

Aectopic pregnancy
Bovarian cyst
Chypertrophy of the endometrium
Dappendicitis
Echolecystitis

Reveal the correct answer

Question 75

Inflammation of the greater vestibular gland is characterized by:
1. A painless course
2. Possible reoccurrence
3. The most common etiology - Candida spp.
4. Conservative treatment is effective.
5. Is treated with marsupialization.

A1,2,3
B1,4
C2,3,5
D2,5
E2.4

Reveal the correct answer

Question 76

Which of the following is the most common location of ectopic pregnancy?

Aabdominal cavity
Bfimbriae of the fallopian tube
Ccervix
Dthe ampulla of the fallopian tube
Eovary

Reveal the correct answer

Question 77

A 30 years old woman for several months has the following symptoms: mood disorders, irritability, nausea. Symptoms appear around the 18th day of the menstrual cycle. The most probable diagnosis is:

Adepression
Bpremenstrual dysphoric disorder
Cirritable bowel syndrome
Depilepsy
Ediabetes

Reveal the correct answer

Question 78

In the donor in TTTS, there is no:

Ahypovolemia
Bhypotension
Cpolycythemia
Doligohydramnios
Ehypotrophy

Reveal the correct answer

Question 79

During her first visit, a pregnant woman should be informed about the following:

Aharmfulness of smoking and alcohol consumption
Busage of caffeine in the form of coffee
Cconsequences of cocaine use
Dabout usage of steam baths
Eall are harmful

Reveal the correct answer

Question 80

A 22-year-old woman has been menstruating regularly for several years, but the cycles last no more than 20 days. This state should be called:

Ahypomenorrhea
Bmultimenorrhea
Coligomenorrhea
Dpolymenorrhea
Eamenorrhea

Reveal the correct answer

Question 81

Scarous skin lesions, eye and CNS damage, hypoplasia of the limbs, hypoplasia of fingers are characteristic of intrauterine infection with:

Arubella
Bchickenpox
Ctoxoplasmosis
DCMV
Eparvovirus

Reveal the correct answer

Question 82

In which situations one can resign from giving the anti-D immunoglobulin to a woman with a Rh (-) blood group?
1. After natural delivery if the newborn has a Rh (-) blood group
2. After surgery of a broken ectopic pregnancy
3. After a miscarriage
4. After natural delivery, without checking if the newborn has a Rh (-) blood group when the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is positive
5. After bleeding from the genital tract in the third trimester.

A1,4,5
B2,3
C1,4
D4,5
EOnly 1

Reveal the correct answer

Question 83

Which of the following cannot be explained by the presence of uterine fibroids:

Asevere monthly bleeding
Bpremature expiration of ovarian function
Csterility
Dpain in the lesser pelvis
Eintermenstrual bleeding

Reveal the correct answer

Question 84

Endometriosis is the presence of the endometrium:

Aglandular cells outside the uterine cavity
Bstromal cells outside the uterine cavity
Cstromal and glandular cells outside the uterine cavity
Dmyometrium cells outside the uterine cavity
Eglandular cells and NK cells outside the uterine cavity

Reveal the correct answer

Question 85

The most common causes of secondary amenorrhea is:

Ahormonal disorders
Black of ovulation
Cpremature ovarian failure
Duse of oral contraceptive pills
Epregnancy

Reveal the correct answer

Question 86

The risk factors for urinary incontinence in women are:
1) Older age
2) Numerous births, especially of large fetuses
3) Previous gynecological procedures
4) Obesity
5) Chronic diseases with coughing
6) Chronic constipation

AAll
B2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C1, 2, 3, 4, 6
D1, 2, 3, 4
E1, 2, 4, 5, 6

Reveal the correct answer

Question 87

Definition of infertility:

Aa woman does not get pregnant after six months of having intercourse 3-4 times a week
Ba woman does not get pregnant after a year of having intercourse 3-4 times a week
Ca woman does not get pregnant after two years of having intercourse, 3-4 times a week
Da woman does not get pregnant until the age of 35
Ea woman does not get pregnant after 2 years of having intercourse 5-6 times a week

Reveal the correct answer

Question 88

Infrequent menstrual periods are called:

Ahypomenorrhea
Bpolymenorrhea
Coligomenorrhea
Deumenorrhea
Eamenorrhea

Reveal the correct answer

Question 89

INVALIDATED CA-125 does not increase in:

Aovarian cancer
Bendometrial cancer
Cpancreatic cancer
Dcervical cancer
Euterine fibroids

Reveal the correct answer

Question 90

What is the manual help is a breech delivery:

Ahelp with the birth of the leg before the buttocks are born
Bwidening of the cervix
Cholding the legs for rotation
Dextraction of the fetus before birth of the buttocks in case of proving fetal hypoxia
Ehelp in bearing the hands, shoulders and head when the buttocks are born

Reveal the correct answer

Question 91

During transverse lie, the risks to the pregnant are the following, except for:

Afetal transverse lie I (first)
Bpregnancy with preserved fetal sac
Cpregnancy with a ruptured fetal sac
Dcomplete opening of the cervix
Eprolapse of small parts of the fetus

Reveal the correct answer

Question 92

The condition for diagnosing bacterial vaginosis is:
1. Exclusion of fungal infection and trichomoniasis
2. The presence of a secretion with a fishy odor
3. Presence of clue cells
4. pH of the vagina <4.5
5. The presence of a greenish and foamy vaginal secretion

Aall correct
Ball false
C1, 4, 5
D2, 4, 5
E1, 2, 3

Reveal the correct answer

Question 93

According to the Act on Mental Health Protection (article 23.1), a person may be admitted to a psychiatric hospital without consent:

Awith mental disorders
Bmentally ill
Cnot able to give consent
Ddangerous to others
Eall points from A to D must be met

Reveal the correct answer

Question 94

Formal thought disorders do not include:

Aderailment
Bdelusions
Cperseverations
Decholalia
Everbigerations

Reveal the correct answer

Question 95

The "amyloid cascade" is the leading concept of pathogenesis of:

AMixed dementia
BDementia with Levy bodies
CAlzheimer's disease
DHuntington's disease
EAll of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 96

Anorexia (according to ICD10) can be diagnosed when the BMI is equal to or less than:

A12.5
B15
C17.5
D21
E19

Reveal the correct answer

Question 97

From the drugs listed below, the first-line therapy in depression includes:

Adiazepam
Bsertraline
Calprazolam
Dzolpidem
Edonepezil

Reveal the correct answer

Question 98

Which of the listed drugs does not belong to the SSRIs?

Afluoxetine
Bfluvoxamine
Csertraline
Dparoxetine
Evenlafaxine

Reveal the correct answer

Question 99

The cause of the delirium syndrome can be:

Apneumonia in an elderly person
Bsudden withdrawal of benzodiazepines
Ccomplication of multi-drug therapy
Dcorrect answers are A, B and C
Edelirium occurs only in the course of alcohol withdrawal syndrome

Reveal the correct answer

Question 100

The main peak of incidence of recurrent depressive disorders is:

A20-30 years of age
B30-40
C40-50
D50-60
Eafter 65th year of age

Reveal the correct answer

Question 101

To recognize a depressive episode according to ICD-10, the symptoms must persist for:

A4 days
B1 week
C2 weeks
D1 month
E6 months

Reveal the correct answer

Question 102

Wernicke encephalopathy is caused by deficiency of which vitamin?

Reveal the correct answer

Question 103

Which of these symptoms is not included in the typical criteria (with a high diagnostic value) in diagnosing schizophrenia according to ICD-10?

Aecho of thought
Bthoughts being read
Cbroadcasting thought
Dcommenting voices
Edelusional jealousy

Reveal the correct answer

Question 104

To recognize schizophrenia according to ICD-10 criteria, the symptoms must persist for a period of:

A2 weeks
B1 month
C6 months
D1 week
E12 months

Reveal the correct answer

Question 105

In a 52-year-old woman, the family observed a change in behavior, co-occurring symptoms of a depressive syndrome, several syncopes, parkinsonian tremor, visual hallucinations. Extrapyramidal symptoms occurred after administration of a small dose of haloperidol. The most probable diagnosis is:

Apsychotic depression
Bparanoid schizophrenia
Cdementia in Alzheimer disease
Ddementia with Lewy bodies
Eanxiety-depressive disorders

Reveal the correct answer

Question 106

The first-line therapy in the treatment of generalized anxiety includes:

ATCA
Bbenzodiazepines
Chydroxyzine
DSSRI and SNRI medicines
Epharmacotherapy is not used in generalized anxiety disorder

Reveal the correct answer

Question 107

Indicate true statements about acute pancreatitis:
1. The most common causes of acute pancreatitis include cholelithiasis and alcohol.
2. The treatment of choice is surgical treatment.
3. Septic complications are the most common cause of death in necrotizing acute pancreatitis.
4. Morphine is administered to combat pain.
5. We distinguish two forms of acute pancreatitis: edematous and necrotizing.

A1, 2, 3
B2, 3, 5
C1, 3, 5
D1, 2, 4
E1, 3, 4

Reveal the correct answer

Question 108

Indicate the true statements about stomach cancer:
1. Adenocarcinoma accounts for 50% of gastric cancers
2. There is an increase in the incidence of non-cardia cancer
3. A special type is linitis plastica, which quickly gives metastases to the lymph nodes
4. Spreads through lymphatic vessels
5. The basic method of treatment is chemotherapy

A1, 3, 4
B4, 5
C3, 4
D2, 3, 5
E1, 4, 5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 109

Indicate true statements about acute appendicitis (ACS):
1. occurs at any age, most often in the second and third decade of life, and men suffer as often as women
2. there is a very strong, suddenly appearing pain, it always varies in intensity, is usually accompanied by peritoneal symptoms and shock quickly develops
3. painfulness at the McBurney point is found
4. there is no pain in per rectum examination
5. in women, a gynecological examination should be performed to exclude changes in the reproductive organs

A1, 2, 3
B1, 3, 4
C1, 3, 5
D2, 4, 5
Eall statements are correct

Reveal the correct answer

Question 110

The risk factor for surgical site infection (SSI) is not:

AObesity (BMI> 30)
BAge (>65 years old)
CAlcoholism
DAtrial fibrillation
EMalnutrition

Reveal the correct answer

Question 111

Indicate the correct statements about whitlow:
1. it is a blood-borne infection
2. It covers the palmar area of the fingers and the hand
3. it is a result of a micro-injury
4. proper procedure includes incision, drainage and immobilization
5. it covers the dorsal surface of the fingers and the hand

A1, 2, 3
B2, 3, 4
C3, 4, 5
D1, 2, 4
E1, 2, 5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 112

Laparoscopy is not the treatment of choice in the case of:

Aunilateral inguinal hernia
Bcholecystolithiasis
Cacute appendicitis
Dgastroesophageal reflux which does not respond to treatment
Eachalasia of the esophagus

Reveal the correct answer

Question 113

Patients with stage IV cancer are often subject to palliative surgery (I), because it improves the comfort of life and protects against some complications (II).

ABoth statements are true and remain in a logical relation
BBoth statement are true but remain without logical connection
CThe first statement is true and the second is false
DThe first statement is false and the second is true
EBoth statements are false

Reveal the correct answer

Question 114

Indicate the false statement about duodenal ulcer:

A3% of ulcers are located outside the bulb
Bfinding an ulcer is an absolute indication for extraction of a sample for further analysis
Cin 50% of cases the ulcer is located on the anterior part of the bulb
Din 25% of cases the ulcer is located on the posterior part of the bulb
Ein 20% of cases there are multiple ulcers

Reveal the correct answer

Question 115

In a woman, a 3 mm polyp and a gallstone of 7mm are found in the gallbladder. The patient does not report any symptoms. What procedure will you recommend?

Aanother ultrasound in 6 months
Bno proceedings
Ccholecystectomy
Dursodeoxycholic acid treatment
Ecomputed tomography of the abdominal cavity

Reveal the correct answer

Question 116

Choose correct statements about splenic artery aneurysm:

1) is the second most frequent aneurysm among abdominal aneurysms

2) in men it occurs 4 times more often than in women

3) in 50% of cases, its rupture is the first symptom

4) in each case, the spleen should be removed

5) removal of the spleen should be considered when the diameter of the aneurysm is greater than 2.5 cm

A1, 3, 5
B1, 4, 5
C2, 3, 4
D1, 2, 3
E1, 2, 5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 117

Which statement about mechanical obstruction is true?

Ain 70-80%, the cause of the obstruction is in the small intestine
Bcauses of large intestine obstruction according to the incidence are: cancer, diverticulitis, sigmoid torsion
Cabout 20% of colorectal cancers are manifested by acute obstruction
Dthe correct answers are A, C
Ethe correct answers are A, B, C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 118

Treatment of gastric lymphoma involves:

Asurgical treatment
BH. pylori eradication
Cuse of chemotherapy
DA, B and C are correct
EA and C are correct

Reveal the correct answer

Question 119

The most common complication after surgical treatment of oesophageal cancer is:

Acomplete narrowing of the anastomosis area
Barrhythmias
Cstroke
Dpulmonary complications (atelectasis, pleural effusion)
EB and C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 120

In esophageal cancer, to restore the continuity of the digestive tract, the following are used:

Aa transplant using stomach or large intestine
Ba transplant using small intestine
Conly a transplant using the large intestine
Dintubation of the esophagus with the placement of a stent
Ecorrect A and B

Reveal the correct answer

Question 121

Indicate the false statement:

ACrohn’s disease is a risk factor for colon cancer.
Bremoval of colon polyps reduces colon cancer incidence.
Cneo-adjuvant radiotherapy is a standard therapy in colon cancer.
Dcarcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level in patients with colon cancer may be within the reference range.
Ecolon cancer is the second most frequent cause of death of cancer in both genders in Poland.

Reveal the correct answer

Question 122

The gold standard in the treatment of patients with pancreatic necrosis is:

Adrainage under the control of an ultrasound
Bsurgical excision of necrotic lesions
Cconservative treatment
Dantibiotic therapy
Enone of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 123

The clinical symptoms of pancreatic pseudocyst include:

Asubfebrile temperatures
Bepigastric pain
Csymptom of mechanical jaivice
Dcorrect A, B
Epoprwne A, B, C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 124

In the case of an inoperable carcinoma of the pancreatic head, the further procedure is:

Aconservative treatment
Bradiotherapy
Cendoscopic prosthesis of the bile ducts
Dbypass surgery
Ecorrect answer C and D

Reveal the correct answer

Question 125

The so called periampullary cancers include:

Acholangiocarcinoma
Bpancreatic head cancer
Campullary cancer (ampulla of Vater)
Dcorrect answer A and B
Ecorrect answer A, B and C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 126

Mark the correct characteristics of Crohn's disease:

1) Nonspecific, idiopathic inflammation affecting the entire digestive tract is typical

2) The lesions are segmental

3) Characteristic granulomas may be present in all involved layers of the intestinal wall

4) Infiltration only involves the mucous membrane

5) Infiltration involves the entire wall of the gastrointestinal tract

A1,2
B1,2,3
C3,5
D1,2,4
E1,2,3,5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 127

Indicate the false information about esophageal cancer:

Amost often occurs in the 6-7 decade of life
Bregardless of age, esophageal cancer is more common in women than in men
Cthe most common symptom of esophageal cancer is dysphagia
Dsquamous cell carcinoma occurs 5-6 times more often in smokers than in non-smokers
Edistant metastases are the most important prognostic factor of esophageal cancer

Reveal the correct answer

Question 128

Which of the following is not used in nutritional therapy?

APEG.
Bintravenous access.
Csigmoidostomy.
Dgastric tube.
Eall of these accesses are used in nutritional therapy.

Reveal the correct answer

Question 129

Indicate the false statement regarding spleen injuries:

Aspleen injuries are often accompanied by a fracture of the ribs VIII-XI on the left side
Bin subcapsular hematomas, bleeding can occur even after several weeks
Cthe spleen is an organ that is most often injured by blunt abdominal injuries
Dsplenectomy is always indicated in spleen injuries
Eall statements mentioned above are true

Reveal the correct answer

Question 130

Which can lead to short bowel syndrome:

Aresection of a large part of the small intestine
Bfistula between the small bowel loops
Cfistula between the stomach and large intestine
Denterocutaneous fistula
Eall of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 131

In the treatment of symptomatic cholecystolithiasis, the gold standard involves laparoscopy, because it is a cheaper and simpler method.

Athe first and the second statements are true and remain in a logical relation
Bthe first and the second statements are true, but they remain without logical connection
Cthe first statement is false and the second is true
Dthe first statement is true and the second statement is false
Eboth statements are false

Reveal the correct answer

Question 132

Intestinal necrosis may be a consequence of:
1. intestinal torsion
2. an incarcerated hernia
3. perforation of sigmoid diverticulum
4. embolus of the mesenteric artery and its branching
5. hyperkalemia

A1, 2, 3
B2, 3, 4
C1, 3, 5
D1, 3, 4
E1, 2, 4

Reveal the correct answer

Question 133

What complications can result from the presence of colon polyp?
1. colorectal cancer
2. sigmoid torsion
3. bleeding
4. ulcerative colitis
5. a perianal fistula

A1, 5
B2, 3
C1, 3
D3, 4
E3, 5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 134

The butterfly erythema on the face is characteristic of:

Arheumatoid arthritis
Bdermatomyositis / polymyositis
Csystemic lupus erythematosus
Dthe limited form of systemic sclerosis
Ethe diffuse form of systemic sclerosis

Reveal the correct answer

Question 135

The indication/indications for discontinuation of treatment with metformin is/are:

AAge above 65 years
BLack of overweight in the patient
CTreatment with two injections of insulin
DFinding eGFR 30 ml/min/1.73 m2 with a creatinine concentration of 1.4 mg/dl
EAll of these are indications for discontinuation of metformin

Reveal the correct answer

Question 136

A 2-year-old child, previously healthy, reports to a doctor because of the itchy skin lesions lasting for 4 weeks, especially at night. In the physical examination, numerous linear bumps of 2-4 mm in diameter, excoriations, small blisters and scabs are shown. Changes are located on the neck, behind the ears, on the hands and feet. The most probable diagnosis is:

Aplaque psoriasis
Bdermatitis herpetiformis (Duhring's disease)
CDarier's disease
Dscabies
Eatopic dermatitis

Reveal the correct answer

Question 137

You suspect a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in a patient with cough. Which of the following results will confirm the diagnosis:

AFEV1/FVC less than 70% after administration of 400 micrograms of salbutamol
BDiurnal variation of PEF (above 20%)
CPEF value below 80%
DIncrease in FEV1 by more than 12% in the diastolic test
EThe X-ray image decides about the diagnosis of COPD

Reveal the correct answer

Question 138

Which of the following symptoms is not characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis:

ATemperature > 38.5 Celsius degrees
BEnlargement of the anterior cervical lymph nodes
CCoughing
DExudate on swollen tonsils
EA sudden onset

Reveal the correct answer

Question 139

Attacks of crying occur in a 2-month-old child. What features indicate infantile colic?

Athe cry occurs and disappears without a clear cause
Bthe child's development is correct
Cthe attacks occur during feeding
DA, B
EA, B, C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 140

Choose a true statement about tuberculosis vaccination:

Aborn on time, healthy newborns with normal birth weight are vaccinated in the first day of life
Bpremature babies are vaccinated at the earliest after obtaining a weight of 2000g
Cin the 12 month of life after examining the size of the scar, the decision is made whether or not there is a need for revaccination
DA and B are true
EA B and C are true

Reveal the correct answer

Question 141

In which clinical situation in a child with a newly-diagnosed acute otitis media, it is necessary to use antibiotics:

Aage <6 months
Bage <2 years and bilateral otitis
Cleakage from the ear canal
DA and C
EA, B, C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 142

Indicate the correct statement about erysipelas:

Athere are no general symptoms in its course
Bmost often located on the face and limbs (especially the lower ones)
Cis characterized by a sudden onset and a fever-free course
Dis caused by group A staphylococci living on the skin
Eresults in durable resistance

Reveal the correct answer

Question 143

In a 4-week-old baby for the past 2 weeks excessive spitting is present, which is accompanied by vomiting (curdled milk without bile) within the last few days. Vomiting occurs during or directly after a meal. The child is fed using artificial milk, has a good appetite but excretes scant, although properly colored stools. In addition, the child does not gain weight. The most probable cause of the ailment is:

Acystic fibrosis
Bhypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Cgastroesophageal reflux
Dachalasia of the esophagus
Eduodenal atresia

Reveal the correct answer

Question 144

The use of an elevated dose of steroids to control asthma may be necessary in patients:

AObese
BSmoking
CRegularly using LABA
DCorrect answers A and B
ECorrect answers A, B, C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 145

Indicate the symptoms that occur both in streptococcal pharyngitis and in infectious mononucleosis:
1. fever of 39 Celsius degrees
2. enlargement of the spleen
3. enlarged cervical lymph nodes
4. redness of the conjunctiva
5. swelling of the palatine tonsils and the presence of a white coating on them

A1
B1, 5
C1, 3, 5
D2, 3, 5
Eall

Reveal the correct answer

Question 146

Which of the abnormalities is not part of the criteria for the diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome?

Atriglyceride levels above 150 mg/dl
Bfasting plasma glucose above 100 mg/dl
Csystolic blood pressure over 130 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure over 85 mm Hg
DHDL-C concentration below 40 mg/dl in men or below 50 mg/dl in women
Etotal cholesterol above 250 mg/dl

Reveal the correct answer

Question 147

The most common location of psoriasis is:

Ahands and feet
Bsternum and interscapular region
Cthe extensor muscles area (knees, elbows), lumbosacral region and the scalp
Darmpits and groins
Eoral mucosa

Reveal the correct answer

Question 148

A 60-year-old woman, suffering from fracture of the femoral neck, was taking clindamycin for 10 days after surgery. Three weeks later she began to complain of cramp-like abdominal pain, loose, watery stools 8-10/day, without any admixture of blood. The most probable cause of these ailments is:

Adysentery
Bacute gastroenteritis
Ccolorectal cancer
Dpseudomembranous colitis
Eulcerative enteritis

Reveal the correct answer

Question 149

Non-pharmacological treatment of hypertension in the elderly depends on all the mentioned procedures, except:

Areduction of intake of salt in the diet to 5 g of sodium chloride daily
Bsignificant limitation of protein intake to below 1.0 g/kg body weight/day
Creduction of alcohol consumption to 2 standard portions in men and 1 portion in women
Dsmoking cessation
Eregular physical activity

Reveal the correct answer

Question 150

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis?

AStreptococcus pneumoniae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
BStaphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae
CPseudomonas aeruginosa, Haemofilus influenzae, Staphylococus aureus
DMoraxella catarrhalis, Candida, Staphylococus aureus
Eviruses

Reveal the correct answer

Question 151

Absolute contraindications to spirometry include:

1. Massive hemoptysis of unknown aetiology

2. Properly developing pregnancy

3. A recent heart attack

4. Arterial pressure 200/120 mmHg

A1,2
B3,4
C2,3
D1,3,4
Enone of the above

Reveal the correct answer

Question 152

In addition to the proton pump inhibitor, the first-line therapy in Poland in the eradication of H. pylori includes:

Aamoxicillin with tetracycline
Bamoxicillin with clarithromycin
Camoxicillin with metronidazole
Damoxicillin with bismuth salts
Eamoxicillin with ciprofloxacin

Reveal the correct answer

Question 153

The main source of vitamin K1 (phylloquinone) in the diet are:

Adark green leafy vegetables and certain oils (rapeseed, soybean, olive oil)
Broot crops (potatoes)
Cproducts of animal origin (meat)
Ddairy products
Efungi

Reveal the correct answer

Question 154

Which of the heart rhythms requires the administration of amiodarone in the case of a cardiac arrest (ECG pictures serve only as distractors from the actual task):

Aasystole
Bpulseless electrical activity
Cventricular fibrillation
DAB
EABC

Reveal the correct answer

Question 155

An 87-year-old female patient who was chronically lying because of the history of stroke was brought to emergency unit due to a head injury resulting from a fall from her bed. In the examination: the patient opens her eyes as a result of the pain stimulus, she also withdraws her hand as a response to pain. She makes unintelligible sounds. What result will she obtain in the GCS scale?

Reveal the correct answer

Question 156

The maximum total dose of atropine used to treat bradycardia is:

A0.5 mg
B1 mg
C3 mg
D5 mg
Ethere is no maximum dose

Reveal the correct answer

Question 157

During oxygen therapy using an AMBU bag with a reservoir with an oxygen flow rate of 10l / min, it is possible to obtain the following oxygen concentration in the breathing mixture:

A40
B55
C70
D85
E100

Reveal the correct answer

Question 158

A 25-year-old patient, who weighs 90kg and has second-degree burns of the entire surface of the right lower limb, is admitted to Hospital Emergency Department. How many fluids should the patient obtain during the first day?

A6500 ml of crystalloids
B3250ml of crystalloids and 3250ml of colloids
C2000 ml of colloids
D8000ml of crystalloids
E6500ml of crystalloids and 1500ml of colloids

Reveal the correct answer

Question 159

Fever with chills, pain in the right upper abdomen and mechanical jaundice are symptoms of the triad of:

AReynold
BCharcot
CMurphy
DWhipple
ECullen

Reveal the correct answer

Question 160

A 56-year-old man with a feeling of palpitations and accompanying chest pain lasting for a few hours came to the emergency unit. In the physical examination: HR 190, BP 80/50. (ECG with ventricular tachycardia attached). What will you use in the patient?

Aamiodarone 150mg
Badenosine 6mg
Celectric biphasic cardioversion with energy of 70J
Delectric biphasic cardioversion with energy of 120J
Ebiphasic defibrillation with energy of 200J

Reveal the correct answer

Question 161

The classic triad of symptoms: pleural chest pain, dyspnoea and hemoptysis can occur in 25% of patients suffering from:

ACOPD
Bpulmonary embolism
Cangina pectoris
Dpneumonia
Easthma

Reveal the correct answer

Question 162

A man has both lower limbs, one upper limb and the perineum burned. What percentage of body surface is burned in this person?

A19%
B37%
C46%
D55 %
E67%

Reveal the correct answer

Question 163

A 24-year-old patient, at 28 weeks of pregnancy, came to the Admission Room with severe headache, which lasted for several hours. At the time of arrival at the Emergency Department, the arterial pressure was 170/100 mm Hg. ECG without changes. The medicine that you will use in the first place will be:

Asublingual captopril at a dose of 12.5 mg
Bsublingual captopril at a dose of 25 mg
Cmethyldopa orally at a dose of 25-50 mg
Dnifedypine orally at a dose of 30-120mg
Eyou will not administer any medicine

Reveal the correct answer

Question 164

Choose the incorrect procedure for the management of third degree frostbite of the dorsal and plantar surface of the foot.

AFrozen limb should be quickly heated in a water bath at 40-42 Celsius degrees
Bserous blisters should be managed
Cintravenous administration of antibiotics and painkillers is recommended
Dtetanus prophylaxis is indicated
Ethe patient can be treated in an outpatient

Reveal the correct answer

Question 165

The "triad of death" occurring in the course of massive hemorrhages during injuries in accident victims includes:
1.Unconsciousness
2.Acidosis
3.Coagulopathy
4.Circulatory arrest
5.Hypothermia

A1,2,3
B1,3,4
C2,3,4
D1,3,5
E2,3,5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 166

Which symptom will not occur in the course of anaphylaxis?

AProfuse sweating
BDiarrhea
CIncrease in blood pressure
DVomiting
EConvulsions, disturbances of consciousness

Reveal the correct answer

Question 167

A 30-year-old patient came to the Admission Room because of sudden vomiting and chest pain for several hours. In physical examination, Hamann's sign is present. In the X-ray, the presence of air in the mediastinum. The probable diagnosis is:

Aesophageal rupture
Bdissecting aneurysm of the aorta
Cpneumothorax
Dacute cardiopulmonary disease
EPlummer-Vinson syndrome

Reveal the correct answer

Question 168

Indicate the FALSE statement about injuries in pregnant women:

Aweakness of gastric motility predisposes to aspiration
Bafter the injury, the fetus should be monitored for 4 hours
Cfetal heart rate might be the first indicator of maternal disorders
Dafter 20 weeks of pregnancy, the woman should be placed on the right side
Ethe death of the fetus most frequently occurs as a result of separation of the placenta.

Reveal the correct answer

Question 169

Dyspnea and tachypnoea (48 breaths/min) in a woman at 30 weeks of pregnancy is an indication for:

Aassessment of the saturation using a pulse oximeter and early administration of oxygen through a mask
Bassessment of capnometry and gasometry
Cgiving benzodiazepines and putting on a mask without providing oxygen
Dit is physiological and oxygen should not be administered
Eall answers are incorrect

Reveal the correct answer

Question 170

A 30-year-old patient suffering from asthma for 10 years has called an ambulance because of dyspnea. Upon arrival, the rescuers found the patient sitting in orthopnoe position, with notable expiratory effort and tachypnoe 50 breaths/min. They gave oxygen (10l/min in an oxygen mask with a reservoir) to support breathing. During the preparation of the salbutamol solution for nebulization the patient lost consciousness (AVPU = U), in the examination bradypnoe (6 breaths/min) and bradycardia (50/min), no pulse on the carotid arteries. What should be the procedure?

ARecognize very severe breathing disorders
BRecognize respiratory faliure and start ventilating with a self-inflating bag
CDeclare death because of asphyxia
DDiagnose cardiac arrest and initiate cardiopulmonaru resuscitation
ETerminate the preparation of nebulization using salbutamol and administer it

Reveal the correct answer

Question 171

A man has been injured in a motorcycle accident. In the emergency scale - AVPU(V): breathing 20/min, heart rate 120/min. During the pelvic examination, the contact with the patient was lost - AVPU(U): no steam on the oxygen mask, impalpable pulse on the carotid artery. What will you do first:

Ahyperventilate with a frequency of 20 breaths/min
Bintubate
Cplace the paddles of the defibrillator and evaluate the rhythm
Dexamine glycemia
Egive medicines according to the MONA scheme

Reveal the correct answer

Question 172

One of the forms of specialization is the so-called civil-law contract. Which of the following does it contain?
1) it is signed with the entity conducting the specialization training
2) it is signed with a specialist doctor conducting his own professional practice
3) under the contract, the entity may not charge a specialist physician
4) the contract is signed for at least 5 years
5) the contract contains mutual obligations between the entity and the specialist physician
The correct answers are:

A1 and 3
B2 and 5
C1 and 5
D2 and 4
E1,3,5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 173

According to the Medical Code of Ethics, working in scientific societies:

Ais obligatory until the end of work
Bis obligatory until the end of the specialization training
Cis obligatory for doctors with a scientific title
Dis recommended
EMedical Code of Ethics does not refer to work in scientific organizations

Reveal the correct answer

Question 174

A doctor was summoned as a witness in a civil case for damages after being beaten, what resulted in the need for an operation. The doctor, in terms of information covered by medical confidentiality, may:

Ahe can testify because the goodness of the justice is more important
Bhe can testify if the court releases him from medical confidentiality
Che can testify if he thinks that it is good for the patient
Dhe can not refuse to testify, but he should avoid responding to questions about information covered by medical confidentiality
Ein no way can he testify, because medical confidentiality is more important than the good of justice

Reveal the correct answer

Question 175

The patient is prepared for extensive orthopedic surgery. The doctor calls the nurse on the phone and orders her to prophylactically provide the patient with enoxaparin subcutaneously at a dose of 40mg. The nurse did not follow the instructions. Nurse in this case:

Ashe was right because oral orders can be performed only in the life-threatening state of the patient
Bshe was right because the nurse does not have to follow the doctor's instructions at all
Cshe was wrong, because orders for preventive treatment do not have to be given in writing
Dissuing verbal orders should be set out in the regulations of a given medical facility
Edepending on whether the doctor has a speciality, oral orders can only be issued by doctors with specialization

Reveal the correct answer

Question 176

The active electoral right in the selection of the organs of the medical chamber has:

Aevery member of the medical chamber
Ba doctor who has not been punished by imprisonment
Ca doctor who has been working professionally for two years
Da doctor having a 5-year work experience
Ea doctor who has been a member of the chamber for 3 years

Reveal the correct answer

Question 177

According to the Act on Cemeteries and Burial of the Deceased, a doctor declaring a death should:
1 / report the case to the sanitary inspector if he thinks that the death was related to the occurrence of an infectious disease,
2 / report the case to the commissioner of children's rights if he thinks that the childs death was caused by domestic violence,
3 / report the matter to the police or prosecutors office if he suspects that the death occurred as a result of the crime,
4 / notify the closest persons who are authorized to burial of the deceased person,
5 / report the death to the appropriate registry office, appropriate to the place of issuing the death certificate.

A1,2,3
B1,3
C2,3,4
D1,2
Eall

Reveal the correct answer

Question 178

The patient's disease has a bad prognosis. Can the doctor not inform the patient about his condition?
1. yes, but he must consult with a close relative of the patient
2. no, because the doctor is obliged to always inform the patient about unfavorable prognosis
3. yes, if it considers that this is a special situation and the information would have a bad effect on the patient's condition
4. yes, but at the patient's request he must tell the truth
5. yes, after consulting with another doctor

A1 and 4
Bonly 2
C3 and 4
D3 and 5
E1 and 5

Reveal the correct answer

Question 179

The doctor is accused of causing imminent danger of serious damage to health. Can he at the same time incur criminal and professional liability?

ANo, he can only be on trial by criminal court.
BNo, he can only be on trial by medical court.
CYes, because criminal proceedings are pending regardless of professional conduct.
DYes, if the parallel proceedings are determined by the Prosecutor General and the President of the Supreme Medical Council.
ECriminal liability can be abolished if the Judge of the Medical Court requests it.

Reveal the correct answer

Question 180

You noticed a colleague's mistake, what are you doing?
1. you notify the colleague about your observation
2. you can notify the regional spokesperson of professional liability
3. you take action to reverse the effects of this error
4. you do not inform the patient
5. when you inform the patient, you are very careful in forming your opinion

Aall correct
B1, 2, 3, 4
C1, 2, 3, 5
D2, 3, 5
E1, 4

Reveal the correct answer

Question 181

After examining the patient, the doctor determined that surgery was necessary. The patient demands confirmation of the diagnosis and proposed treatment by the medical board and he wants the doctor to arrange it. What should the doctor do?

AHe must organize the consilium, because the patient's request is binding for him.
BHe must organize a consilium, but only if he remains in an employment relationship.
CHe may refuse, but only if he has the title of specialist.
DHe may refuse after obtaining the consent of his supervisor.
EHe may refuse, if he considers that its organization is not justified in terms of the requirements of medical knowledge.

Reveal the correct answer

Question 182

When you issue a medical certificate, how many preceding days can it cover (does not apply to psychiatrists)?

A14 days
B7 days
C3 days
D2 days
E1 day

Reveal the correct answer

Question 183

The cash benefit from sickness and maternity is not entitled for the first 5 days of incapacity caused by:

Aan infectious disease
Boverdose of psychotropic drugs
Calcohol consumption
Dtuberculosis
Ean accident on the way to work

Reveal the correct answer

Question 184

In a medical certificate on temporary incapacity to work, which is a confidential document, the statistical number of the disease determined according to the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, is written on:

Athe original medical certificate
Bthe original and the first copy of the medical certificate
Cthe original and the second copy of the medical certificate
Dthe first copy of the medical certificate
Ethe second copy of the medical certificate

Reveal the correct answer

Question 185

The Act on cash benefits from social insurance in case of sickness and maternity defines the conditions and amount of cash benefits entitled to the insured persons. Which of the following benefits is not paid from the Sickness Fund?

Atraining pension
Bsickness benefit
Crehabilitation benefit
Dcompensatory allowance
Ecare allowance

Reveal the correct answer

Question 186

Social pension is entitled to the person:

Awith a slight degree of disability
Bwith a significant degree of disability
Ccompletely unable to work
Dcompletely unable to serve
Epartially incapable to work

Reveal the correct answer

Question 187

Is a person insured in the Social Insurance Institution (ZUS) allowed to perform paid work during the period of receiving sickness benefit due to temporary incapacity to work?

AYes
BNo.
CYes, but up to 1/3 of time in a full-time job
DYes, but up to 1/2 of time in a full-time job
EYes, but in another entity (different employer)

Reveal the correct answer

Question 188

Mediterranean diet compared to North European:

Acontains less ingredients rich in saturated fatty acids
Bcontains more ingredients rich in natural antioxidants
Ccontains more fiber-rich products
Dhas reduced ratio of omega6 to omega3 fatty acids
Eall of them

Reveal the correct answer

Question 189

Sensitivity of a diagnostic test:

Ais a characteristic feature of a given diagnostic method (test)
Bis expressed by the percentage of positive results in relation to clinically confirmed diagnoses
Cis expressed by the percentage of negative results in relation to clinically unconfirmed diagnoses
Dcorrect answers are A and B
Ecorrect answers are A and C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 190

The prevalence rate for breast cancer does not depend on:

Athe severity of the course of the disease
Bduration of the disease
Cthe number of new cases
Dmigration phenomenon in the population
EKatz ADL index (Activites of Daily Living)

Reveal the correct answer

Question 191

The medical activity in accordance with the current provisions of the Act on medical activity consists, among others, in:

Aproviding health services
Bhealth promotion
Cimplementation of didactic tasks in connection with the provision of health services
Dimplementation of new medical technologies
Eall the above mentioned answers are correct

Reveal the correct answer

Question 192

Regarding the Polish Presidency in the EU - special attention should be paid to respiratory diseases in children, especially to:

Aasthma and allergic rhinitis
BCOPD
Csarcoidosis
Dpulmonary fibrosis
EChurg-Strauss syndrome

Reveal the correct answer

Question 193

Which of the tests is used to assess the effectiveness of new drugs?

Adescriptive
Brandomized with a control group
Cfield
Decological
Ecross-sectional

Reveal the correct answer

Question 194

In the case of diseases with a characteristic course - a sudden and specific beginning and a relatively short duration (eg flu, mumps) - the following indicator can be used for epidemiological registration of a health problem:

Amorbidity
Bincidence
Caverage life expectancy
Daverage life expectancy in good condition
Ecorrect answer A and C

Reveal the correct answer

Question 195

Screening tests are used for:

Aearly detection of the disease
Bearly implementation of disease treatment
Cdifferentiating the severity of the disease
Dmonitoring the effectiveness of treatment
Ecorrect answers are A and B

Reveal the correct answer

Question 196

Which of the following confirms the diagnosis of osteoporosis (question annulled by CEM)?

ALow-energy fracture of the thoracic vertebra
BBMD -2.7
CHypercalciuria
DLow vitamin D concentration
EA and B are correct

Reveal the correct answer

Question 197

Hydrogen breath test - choose the true statement:

1) it is used in the diagnosis of lactase, sucrase and maltase deficiencies

2. is used only in the diagnosis of lactase deficiency

3. consists in measuring the hydrogen content in the exhaled air of the examined patient

4. it is not applicable to the bacterial overgrowth syndrome;

5. is a minimally invasive examination

A1, 3, 4
B1, 3, 5
C2,5
D2,3,5
Eall

Reveal the correct answer

Question 198

INVALIDATED What will be the loss of blood in the fracture of the femur and tibia:

A750 ml
B1350 ml
C2250ml
D2750 ml
E3500 ml

Reveal the correct answer

Question 199

The agricultural pension for total incapacity to work on the farm is granted in the case of:

Aa permanent or temporal inability to work on a farm
Btotal incapacity to work, which arose during the insurance period or not later than within 18 months of cessation of employment
Chas the required period of pension insurance
Dcorrect answers are A, B and C
Ecorrect answers are A and B

Reveal the correct answer

Question 200

The risk factor/factors for chronic lower limb ischemia is/are:

Asmoking.
Bdiabetes mellitus.
Carterial hypertension.
Dolder age.
Eall the above.

Reveal the correct answer

Time to start studying.

Choose your access and begin your exam preparation.

Get access