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53.

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of a 2-day history of fever and painful swelling of the left ankle. In the past he had recurrent cervical lymphadenitis caused by catalase-positive staphylococcus and was hospitalized twice because of pneumonia. Nitroblue tetrazolium blood test shows no color change. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of the disorder?

A. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
B. complement depletion
C. impaired phagocytic oxidative metabolism.
D. Lack of CD4 + T lymphocytes
E. developmental disorder of lymphocyte B maturation.

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